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9231 P11 - Nov 2011 - Q6
6549

Let \(I_{n}=\int_{0}^{1} x^{n}(1-x)^{\frac{1}{2}} \mathrm{~d} x\), for \(n \geqslant 0\). Show that, for \(n \geqslant 1\),
\((3+2 n) I_{n}=2 n I_{n-1} .\)

Hence find the exact value of \(I_{3}\).

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