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9231 P11 - Jun 2011 - Q10
6485

Let
\(I_{n}=\int_{0}^{\frac{1}{2} \pi} \cos ^{n} x \mathrm{~d} x\)
where \(n \geqslant 0\). Show that, for all \(n \geqslant 2\),
\(I_{n}=\frac{n-1}{n} I_{n-2} .\)

A curve has parametric equations \(x=a \sin ^{3} t\) and \(y=a \cos ^{3} t\), where \(a\) is a constant and \(0 \leqslant t \leqslant \frac{1}{2} \pi\). Show that the mean value \(m\) of \(y\) over the interval \(0 \leqslant x \leqslant a\) is given by
\(m=3 a \int_{0}^{\frac{1}{2} \pi}\left(\cos ^{4} t-\cos ^{6} t\right) \mathrm{d} t\)

Find the exact value of \(m\), in terms of \(a\).

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