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9231 P11 - Jun 2016 - Q5 - 9 marks
6344

Let \(I_{n}=\int_{0}^{\frac{1}{2} \pi} \cos ^{n} x \sin ^{2} x \mathrm{~d} x\), for \(n \geqslant 0\). By differentiating \(\cos ^{n-1} x \sin ^{3} x\) with respect to \(x\), prove that
\((n+2) I_{n}=(n-1) I_{n-2} \quad \text { for } n \geqslant 2 .\)

Hence find the exact value of \(I_{4}\).

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